Chemistry: Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
Botany: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant, Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Zoology: Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health
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DURATION : 90 Minutes DURATION: 200 Minutes
All India Test Series (2024-25)
rallel plate capacitor is enclosed inside
a spherical closed surface as shown in figure. The
net electric flux through the spherical surface is:
2. Magnetic field at the centre of a single current
carrying circular loop is B. If current i is flowing in
the loop, then area of loop is (symbols have their
3. When 2 mA and 4 mA current passes through two
galvanometers P and Q respectively, they produce
same deflection of 20 divisions on scale. Which
galvanometer has more current sensitivity?
(3) Both are equally sensitive
(4) Data insufficient to compare current
4. The equivalent capacitance of the circuit shown in
the figure between terminals A and B is x. The value
5. Choose the correct option regarding charge on a
(1) Amount of charge on a body does not change
whether the body is at rest or in motion.
(2) Electric charge on a body is quantized.
(3) When a body is given a positive charge, its
6. Which graph best represent the relationship between
the length of a conducting wire with its resistivity?
7. Consider points A, B, C and D in a region of uniform
as shown in figure. The value of
8. Current i1, i2 and i3 are flowing in a straight wire
segments AB, CD and EF respectively in x-y plane
The magnetic field due to all current carrying wires
(1) along –x axis (2) along –z axis
9. The magnitude of electric field at a distance
from centre of a charged conducting spherical shell
of radius R is E. The magnitude of electric field at a
from the centre of this spherical shell
10. A uniform electrostatic field is present in a region of
space. A point charge q is moved from A to B via 3
different paths as shown. If W1, W2 and W3 represent
the work done by electrostatic force along the
(1) W1 > W2 > W3 (2) W1 = W2 = W3
(3) W2 > W1 > W3 (4) W1 < W2 < W3
11. Figure shows the part of an electric circuit. What is
the value of current i in branch EF?
12. Two long parallel wires in same plane are carrying
electric current of equal magnitude but in the
opposite directions. Both wires will exert:
(1) an attractive force on each other
(2) a repulsive force on each other
13. A 50N constant force is acting on a positively
charged small block of mass 10 kg which is placed
in a region of uniform electrostatic field E = 200 N/C
on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in figure.
If block is in static equilibrium, what is the
14. Electric potential along x-axis in a region of space is
2 + 5x + 1) volt (where x is in meter).
The electric field (in N/C) at x = 2m is:
15. Bulbs B1 and B2 are rated as (100V, 50W) and (50V,
50W) respectively. They are connected in parallel
across a constant voltage supply V. Both bulb B1
and B2 will get fused if V is equal to:
16. A long solenoid has 300 turns per meter of its
length. If the current in the solenoid is 2A, then the
magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid will be
17. The magnitude of electric field due to short electric
below is: (symbols have their usual meaning)
18. The capacitance of a charged spherical capacitor is
10 pF. The radius of capacitor is: (1pF = 10–12F)
19. A finite conducting wire XY carries a current I. The
of the conducting wire at a point P as shown in
20. Choose the correct statements regarding use of
good ammeter and voltmeter as a measuring device
A. An ammeter should have small resistance.
B. An ammeter should have large resistance.
C. A voltmeter should have small resistance.
21. Two point charges +2 µC and –50 µC are placed
80 cm apart. Calculate the distance of the point from
the negative charge on line joining both the charges
where the net electric field is zero.
22. In the meter bridge, galvanometer shows zero
deflection if the balancing length AB = 40 cm. The
ratio of resistance X and Y is:
23. A charged particle of charge q and mass m is
projected with speed v in a uniform transverse
magnetic field B. The angular speed of the particle
moving in circular path in magnetic field is:
24. Three point charges q, q and –2q are placed at the
corners of an equilateral triangle of side L. Calculate
the work done by external force in moving all the
charges slowly to infinity is:
25. A D.C. circuit is shown in figure. Power loss across
26. Two wires with currents 3A and 2A are enclosed in
a circular loop. Another wire with current 4A is
situated outside the loop as shown. The value of
around the loop is: (symbol have their usual
27. Four-point charges –Q, 4q, 2q and 3Q are placed,
one at each corner of a square. The relation between
Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the
28. If a wire of resistance R is compressed such that its
new length becomes 80% of its original length, then
resistance of wire will decrease by:
29. Current i is flowing in a given shape of conducting
wire ABCDE which consist of straight segments and
circular arcs as shown in figure. The magnitude of
magnetic field at point A is: (symbols have their
usual meaning, is in radians)
30. Consider the circuit as shown in the following
figure. The current through the resistor R1
immediately after closing the switch is:
31. V and 2V be the electric potential at the centre of
hollow charged sphere and solid non-conducting
uniformly charged sphere respectively, then the
ratio of their radii if both sphere have same net
32. A charged particle moves in a circle perpendicular
to uniform magnetic field. The time period of
revolution of particle is independent of
33. At what distance from the centre of a uniformly
charged ring along its axis, electric field is
34. Three resistance each of 2 are connected to form
a triangle. The equivalent resistance between any
two corners of the triangle is:
35. An electric dipole is kept in uniform electric field
such that it has maximum electrostatic potential
energy. The angle between electric dipole moment
36. Torque acting on an electric dipole of dipole
C-m placed in a uniform electric
Nm. The electric field in (N/C) in the
37. A small positive charge of 6C is moved slowly
along the uniform electric field E from point A to
point B by some external agent. If work done by
external agent in moving the charge is –50 Joule,
then potential difference (VA – VB) is:
38. Current i is flowing in a circuit as shown in figure.
Internal resistance of cell A and cell B are 2 and
4 respectively. Match List-I (current and potential
difference) with List-II (numeric value).
(1) A - IV; B - II; C - I; D - III
(2) A - I; B - III; C - II; D - IV
(3) A - III; B - I; C - IV; D - II
(4) A - IV; B - I; C - II; D - III
39. Two positive point charges q1 and q2 having mass
m1 and m2 respectively are suspended from a
common point by strings of equal length as shown in
figure. If q1 < q2 and m1 = m2, then at equilibrium
condition, which of the following relation between
40. Eight positive point charges each of magnitude 2q
are placed on a circle of radius R such that they are
equally spaced as shown in figure. The magnitude
of electrostatic force experienced by charge particle
41. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform
(1) It always experience a zero torque.
(2) It always experience a zero net force.
(3) It may or may not experience any torque
depending on the orientation of electric dipole
42. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is shown
Initially E is the electric field between the plates of
the capacitor. If battery remains connected and
separation between the plates is doubled, new
electric field between the plates is:
43. A bent wire shown in figure carries a current i and
is placed in a uniform magnetic field
emerges outward from the plane of the figure.
Calculate the magnitude of force acting on the wire.
44. The given figure shows, two infinitely large parallel
thin sheets A and B of surface charge densities +
and – respectively. Electric field will be zero in the
45. Value of current i shown in the given circuit is:
46. Statement I: When a charged particle with speed v
enters in a uniform transverse magnetic field, the
linear momentum of charged particle moving inside
Statement II: When a charged particle moves in a
circle in uniform transverse magnetic field, work
done by magnetic force on moving charged particle
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
47. An uncharged capacitor of capacitance 2C is
connected to a V-volt battery, as shown. The work
done by battery in fully charging the capacitor is:
48. A constant current i is flowing along the length of a
non-uniform cross-section of conducting wire as
The current density along wire in moving from A to
(1) first increases then decreases.
(2) first decreases then increases.
(4) initially increases then becomes constant.
49. A charge q is initially (at t = 0 s) moving with a
m/s. If magnetic field and electric
respectively, then velocity (in m/s) of charge q at
50. A heater coil is rated 100 W, 220 V. It is cut into
two identical parts. Both parts are connected
together in parallel to the common source of 220 V.
The energy liberated per second in the new
[AITS-01 | 12th-NEET | 15-09-2024]
Syllabus: Solution + Electrochemistry + Chemical kinetics + Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
51. Which of the following colligative property is
widely used to determine the molar masses of
(2) Relative Lowering of Vapour Pressure
(3) Elevation of Boiling Point
(4) Depression of Freezing Point
52. The number of Faraday required to reduce 5 moles
53. If a first order reaction takes 10 minutes for 90%
completion, then rate constant of the reaction will
54. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): For the same alkyl group, the boiling
points of alkyl halides decrease in the order: RI>
Reason (R): With the increase in size and mass of
halogen atom, the magnitude of van der Waal forces
among alkyl halides increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
55. Which of the following concentration terms are
56. For a spontaneous cell reaction, the correct
57. For the given reaction, A + B → C
the following data is observed;
The overall order of the reaction is;
58. Which of the following haloarenes is most reactive
towards nucleophilic substitution reaction with
59. Which of the following pair will show negative
60. The product obtained at cathode during the
electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuCl2 is:
61. If the plot between t1/2 and [A0] is given as below,
62. The correct decreasing order of density is:
(1) n–C3H7Cl > n–C3H7Br > n–C3H7I
(2) n–C3H7I > n–C3H7Cl > n–C3H7Br
(3) n–C3H7I > n–C3H7Br > n–C3H7Cl
(4) n–C3H7Cl > n–C3H7I > n–C3H7Br
63. The values of Henry's Law constant for some gases
in water at 298 K are given below. The gas with
maximum solubility in water is:
64. Standard electrode potential of three metals A, B
and C are –1.2 V, +0.2 V and –3.9 V respectively.
The reducing power of these metals will be:
65. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): The unit of rate and rate constant are
Reason (R): The rate of zero order reaction is
inversely proportional to initial concentration of
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
66. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Allylic and benzylic halides show less
reactivity towards the SN1 reaction.
Statement II: SN1 reactions of alkyl halides are
generally carried out in polar protic solvents.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
67. On dissolving 40 g of a non-volatile solute in 500 g
of water, its freezing point decreases by 0.4ºC. The
molar mass of the non-volatile solute is:
68. Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with a
solution of an electrolyte of concentration 0.1 M is
100 ohm. If the specific conductance is 0.5 × 10–3 S
, then the value of cell constant is:
69. For the given reaction, X → Y. If the rate of
reaction become eight times when the concentration
of X is doubled, then the order with respect to X is:
70. Limiting molar conductivity in water at 298 K is
71. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a nearly saturated solution of solid
in a liquid, if the dissolution process is exothermic,
the solubility will increase with rise in temperature.
Statement II: Increase in pressure have significant
effect on solubility of solids in liquids.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
72. (CH3)3CMgCl on reaction with D2O gives:
73. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The number of collisions per second
per unit volume of the reaction mixture is known as
Statement II: For a chemical reaction, with rise in
temperature by 10°C, the rate constant becomes
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
74. The name of the given reaction is:
H C Br AgF H C F AgBr 3 3 − + → − +
75. If the value of van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2
solution is 1.50, then the degree of dissociation is:
76. Dry cell is also known as;
77. For the reaction A + B → C + 40 kcal, the value of
Ea is 80 kcal. The activation energy for C → A + B
78. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: 2,3-Dihyroxypropanal is a chiral
Statement II: SN2 reactions of optically active
halides are accompanied by inversion of
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
79. Which of the following aqueous solutions have
80. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Conductivity always decreases with
decrease in concentration of both weak and strong
Reason R: The number of ions per unit volume that
carry the current in a solution increases on dilution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
81. The slope of the graph plotted between logK and
for Arrhenius equation is equals to;
82. The major product (A) formed in the given reaction
83. If 5.6 g of KOH [Molar mass = 56 g mol–1
in 40 mL of solution, then the molarity of the
84. During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride,
the time required to produce 35.5 g of chlorine gas
using a current of 1930 amperes is;
85. An example of pseudo first order reaction is:
(4) Thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface
86. Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the presence
of light to an extremely poisonous compound,
87. The vapour pressure of pure liquid A and B are 200
mm Hg and 50 mm Hg respectively. If 1 mole of
liquid A and 2 moles of liquid B are mixed to form
an ideal solution, then the vapour pressure of
for the given cell reaction is 1.10 V, then
the value of log Kc (where, Kc = equilibrium
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
89. Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
90. Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
91. The osmotic pressure of 0.2 M aqueous solution of
(Given: R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1
92. If the molar conductivity of Mg2+ and Cl–
dilution are respectively 106 S cm2 mol–1
, then the limiting molar conductivity of
93. Consider the following statements regarding
A. It alters the Gibbs energy of a reaction.
B. It catalyses the forward as well as the backward
C. It can change the equilibrium constant of a
The incorrect statement(s) is/are;
94. When ethyl bromide is treated with KNO2, the
95. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: At high altitudes the partial pressure
of oxygen is less than that at the ground level.
Statement II: To increase the solubility of CO2 in
soft drinks and soda water, the bottle is sealed under
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
96. The relative lowering of vapour pressure on adding
0.1 mol of urea to 10 mol of water is equal to:
97. In Daniell cell, if the value of applied Eext (opposite
potential) > 1.10 V, then which of the following
(1) Electrons flow from Zn rod to Cu rod
(2) Electrons flow from Cu rod to Zn rod
98. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A solution having approximate
composition, 68% nitric acid and 32% water by
mass, is an example of maximum boiling azeotrope.
Statement II: The solutions that show large
negative deviation from Raoult’s law form
minimum boiling azeotrope at a specific
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
5Br (aq.) BrO (aq.) 6H (aq.) 3Br (aq.) 3H O(l) 3 2 2
The rate of reaction is given by:
100. Which of the following is an example of gemdihalide?
[AITS-01 | 12th -NEET | 15-09-2024]
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant, Molecular Basis of Inheritance
101. In angiosperms, a typical microsporangium is
generally surrounded by how many wall layers?
102. The number of genes in Y chromosome of humans is;
103. Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is
104. Who observed that for a double stranded DNA, the
ratios between Adenine – Thymine and Guanine –
Cytosine are constant and equals one?
105. Among the following all are having many ovules
106. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): In bacteria, the transcribed mRNA
Reason (R): In bacteria, the transcribed mRNA is
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
107. During embryogenesis in a dicotyledonous plant,
the zygote first gives rise to the;
108. One of the _____ acts as a catalyst for peptide
bond formation, which is an example of ribozyme.
109. The flowers pollinated by wasps and ants have all
the following characters, except;
(1) small flowers are clustered into an
(3) colourful and fragrant flowers.
(4) long, ribbon-like pollen grains.
110. The correct representation of the set of Frederick
(1) S strain → Inject into mice → Mice live
(2) R strain → Inject into mice → Mice die
(3) S strain (heat-killed) → Inject into mice →
(4) S strain (heat-killed) + R strain (live) → Inject
111. The pollen tube, after reaching the ovary, enters
112. Identify the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t genetic
113. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A typical dicotyledonous embryo
consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons.
Statement II: Embryos of monocotyledons
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
114. Identify the nitrogenous base which is not required
115. All of the following are water pollinated plants,
(3) Hydrilla. (4) Amorphophallus.
116. The central dogma in molecular biology states that
the genetic information flows from;
117. Match List I with List II
A. Funicle I. A small pore in the seed
B. Integuments II. A stalk which attaches
C. Micropyle III. The basal part of the ovule
D. Chalaza IV. One or two protective
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
118. In eukaryotes, translation of mRNA to protein
(2) both the subunits of ribosome join together.
(3) the larger subunit of ribosome encounters
(4) the small subunit of ribosome encounters
119. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.
(2) It has become a fashion in recent years to use
pollen tablets as food supplements.
(3) In western countries, a large number of pollen
products in the form of tablets and syrups are
(4) Pollen consumption has been claimed to
decrease the performance of athletes and race
120. Which of the following is not a criterion for a
molecule to act as genetic material?
(1) It should be able to generate its replica
(2) It should be stable chemically and structurally.
(3) It should be able to express itself in the form
(4) It should provide the scope for fast changes
that are required for evolution.
121. All of the following plants produce both
chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers, except;
122. Read the following and identify the correct
A. The DNA sequence coding for tRNA or
B. A gene is defined as the functional unit of
C. Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a
D. In eukaryotes, the monocistronic structural
genes have interrupted coding sequences – the
genes in eukaryotes are split.
123. Yucca plant is pollinated by;
(3) rodents. (4) garden lizard.
124. Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin
MacLeod and Maclyn Carty the genetic material
125. Identify the seed in which endosperm is
completely consumed during embryo development.
126. Match List I with List II
II. DNA replicates semiconservatively
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
127. The placenta is located inside the;
128. The unequivocal proof of DNA as genetic material
129. The seed that germinated and flowered after an
estimated record of 10,000 years was;
(3) excavated from Arctic Tundra.
130. Which of the following enzymes joins the
discontinuously synthesised DNA fragments
131. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the
(1) These fruits develop without fertilisation.
(2) The example of parthenocarpic fruit is banana.
(3) Parthenocarpy can be induced through the
application of growth hormones.
(4) Such fruits have many seeds.
132. In the capping of hnRNA, an unusual nucleotide
called _____ is added to the 5'-end of hnRNA.
(1) methyl adenosine triphosphate
(2) methyl cytidine triphosphate
(3) methyl uridine triphosphate
(4) methyl guanosine triphosphate
133. The wall layer of microsporangium in which cells
possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more
(3) middle layers. (4) endothecium.
134. All the following statements are true for VNTRs,
(1) show very low degree of polymorphism.
(3) are used as a probe in DNA fingerprinting.
(4) have size range from 0.1 to 20 kb.
135. Match List I with List II
B. Flower 6 feet in height II. Michelia
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
136. Formation of primary transcript in eukaryotes
during gene expression is the regulation;
(3) during transport of mRNA from nucleus to the
137. In an embryo sac, three cells at the chalazal end are
(1) egg apparatus. (2) egg cells.
(3) synergids. (4) antipodals.
138. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In eukaryotes, the replication of
DNA takes place at S-phase of the cell-cycle.
Statement II: A failure in cell division after DNA
replication results into polyploidy (a chromosomal
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
139. The only type of pollination which brings
genetically different types of pollen grains to the
140. There are no tRNA for all of the following codons,
141. The function of filiform apparatus is to;
(1) stimulate division of embryo sac.
(3) guide the pollen tube into synergids.
142. The ribosome consists of structural RNAs and
about _____ different proteins.
143. Pollination in the plant shown in the given diagram
144. From the following, identify the one that is not the
(1) Identify all the approximately 20,000-25,000
(2) Determine the sequences of the 3 billion
chemical base pairs that make up human
(3) Improve tools for data analysis.
(4) Transfer related technologies to other sectors,
145. Match List I with List II.
A. z Gene I. beta-galactosidase
D. i Gene IV. Repressor protein
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
146. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t
(1) It is one of the most resistant organic
(2) No enzyme that degrades it so far known.
(3) It is the main component of intine of pollen
(4) It can withstand high temperatures and strong
147. The technique of DNA Fingerprinting was initially
148. Occasionally, in some seeds such as black pepper
remnants of nucellus are persistent known as;
149. During the human genome project, the sequence of
_____ was completed only in May 2006.
150. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): Angiosperms exhibit double
Reason (R): In angiosperms, two fusion events
occur in each embryo sac, namely syngamy and
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
[AITS -01 | 12th-NEET | 15-09-2024]
Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health
151. Which of the following hormones increase in
concentration during the secretory phase of the
152. Which of the following sexually transmitted
diseases impacts the immune system rather than
targeting only the reproductive organs?
(3) Gonorrhoea (4) Genital warts
153. Choose the correct match among the following.
(1) Perimetrium → Thick innermost layer
(2) Myometrium → Striated muscles
(3) Endometrium → Glandular layer
(4) Vagina → Also known as womb
154. When selecting a contraceptive method, which of
the following characteristics would be considered a
(1) Easily available (2) Least effective
(3) Reversible (4) User-friendly
155. Match List-I with List-II.
A. Interstitial space I. Highly coiled tube
C. Sertoli cells III. Leydig cells
D. Male germ cells IV. Nutrition to germ
Choose the correct answer from the options given
156. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Gametogenesis in human females starts at
(2) Foetal ejection reflex originate from the fully
developed foetus and the placenta.
(3) Estrogens are produced by the ovarian follicle.
(4) The third trimester extends from the seventh
157. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Sperm is a microscopic structure.
Reason R: Sperm is produced in seminiferous
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
158. For how long can lactational amenorrhea be
effectively used as a natural contraceptive method?
(1) Two years following parturition.
(2) Nine month following parturition.
(3) One year following parturition.
(4) Six months following parturition.
159. Which hormone, produced by the pituitary gland,
stimulates Sertoli cells to support sperm development?
160. Which principle do natural contraception methods rely
on to effectively reduce the chances of pregnancy?
(4) Preventing embryo development
161. At what point does the mammalian ovum complete
(1) Right after ovulation, before entering the
(2) Once the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm.
(3) After the sperm's nucleus has fused with the
(4) Within the Graafian follicle following the first
162. To prevent pregnancy effectively after unprotected
intercourse, within how many days should
emergency contraceptive pills and IUDs be used?
163. Which are the diploid stages in spermatogenesis?
(1) Spermatogonia and secondary spermatocytes.
(2) Spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes.
(4) Primary spermatocytes and secondary
164. Which contraceptive method not only prevents
pregnancy but also provides protection against
sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) and AIDS?
(1) LNG-20 (2) Spermicidal foams
165. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Shape of uterus is like an inverted
Statement II: Outermost layer of uterus is called
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
166. When using barrier methods of contraception,
which mechanism is primarily responsible for
preventing sperm from fertilizing an egg?
(1) Enhancing the phagocytosis of sperm within
(3) Preventing ovulation and implantation
(4) Physically blocking sperm from entering
167. Which of the following statement is false?
(1) Menarche is beginning of menstruation.
(2) Menstruation is shedding of endometrial lining.
(3) Menopause typically occurs at the age of fifteen.
(4) Ovulation occurs under high amount of LH.
168. Which of the following intrauterine devices (IUDs)
is designed to release hormones for contraceptive
(1) Lippes Loop (2) Multiload 375
169. Which of the following is a true statement regarding
the process of fertilisation in humans?
(1) Lots of sperms reach the egg and enters into it.
(2) The entry of sperm activates the egg for
(3) Two diploid nuclei fuse and immediately
divide to produce two haploid nuclei.
(4) Only few chromosomes of sperm enters the egg.
170. Copper ions released by CuT plays a role in;
(1) blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix.
(2) suppressing sperm motility.
(3) suppressing fertilising capacity of sperms.
171. Which hormones are exclusively produced by the
172. In India, which contraceptive method is most
commonly used and accepted for family planning?
173. Which of the following pairs of structures are part
of the human female reproductive system and
(1) Fallopian tube and vasa efferentia
(4) Fallopian tubes and seminal vesicles
174. In the procedure of Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer
(ZIFT), which of the following is introduced into the
(1) An embryo up to the 16-cell stage
(2) Either a zygote or an early embryo up to the 8-
(3) An embryo at the 32-cell stage
(4) Ova and sperm from both partners
(1) is a dramatic sudden increase in the level of LH
during the secretory phase of menstrual cycle
and is responsible for ovulation.
(2) is a dramatic sudden decrease in the levels of
LH during the follicular phase of menstrual
cycle and is responsible for ovulation.
(3) is a dramatic sudden increase in the levels of
LH during the mid-menstrual cycle and is
(4) is a dramatic sudden decrease in the levels of
LH during the mid-menstrual cycle and is
176. In the list of assisted reproductive technologies
provided in the given box, how many of these
methods involve the use of in vitro fertilization
177. In the process of human gametogenesis, if 100
secondary oocytes and 100 secondary
spermatocytes undergo maturation, how many
viable ova and sperm cells will be produced?
178. Which of the following is/are incorrect?
(1) Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
(2) Fertilisation that occurs outside the body is
(3) Complete lactation up to 6 months following
parturition could help in contraception.
(4) Creating awareness about various reproduction
related aspects can help create a reproductively
179. Match List-I with List-II.
A. Trophoblast I. Embedding of blastocyst
B. Cleavage II. Group of cells that
III. Outer layer of blastocyst
D. Implantation IV. Mitotic division of zygote
Choose the correct answer from the options
180. Which of the following is the incorrect order of
(1) Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilisation
(2) Fertilisation → Insemination → Gametogenesis
(3) Implantation → Gestation → Parturition
(4) Insemination → Fertilisation → Implantation
181. Read the following statements and choose incorrect
(1) Each testis has about 250 compartments called
(2) Each testicular lobule contains 10 to 20 straight
(3) Each seminiferous tubules is lined on its inside
by spermatogonia and Sertoli cells.
(4) Each testis is covered by a dense covering.
182. Choose correct statement regarding mons pubis.
(1) It is the region where pubic hair grows in both
(2) It is a cushion of proteins covered by skin and
(3) It is a cushion of fat covered by skin and pubic
(4) It is a part of the internal genitalia in females.
183. A couple is experiencing difficulty conceiving
naturally due to male infertility. Which of the
following procedures would most likely be
recommended by a fertility specialist to assist them
(1) Transfer of sperm from a healthy donor to a test
(2) Transfer of sperm from the husband to a test
(3) Artificial introduction of sperm from a healthy
donor into the vagina or uterus.
(4) Introduction of sperm from a healthy donor
184. Select the correct match.
(1) Embryo's heart is formed After 1st trimester
(2) Foetus develops limbs and digits By the end
(3) First movements of foetus During the 5th
(4) Foetal head covered with fine hair By the
185. During parturition, the fetal ejection reflex triggers
(1) oxytocin from the maternal pineal gland.
(2) a decreasing amount of estrogen and an
increasing amount of progesterone from the
(3) oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
(4) GnRH from the fetal hypothalamus.
186. Match List-I with List-II.
A. Diaphragm I. Sheath of latex
C. Multiload 375 III. Contains copper
D. Implant IV. Placed under skin
Choose the correct answer from the options
187. Given below are some statements. Choose the
option with correct statements only.
A. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
during first trimester is generally safe.
B. Isthmus is the part of uterus.
C. Intra uterine devices are effective contraceptives.
D. Pills have to be taken on alternate days for a period
of 21 days starting preferably within the first five
188. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A functional mammary gland is
characteristic of all female mammals.
Statement II: Acrosome is present in neck of
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
189. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Colostrum contains several antibodies
essential to provide disease resistance to the
(2) Stem cells of inner cell mass have the potency
to give rise to all the tissues and organs.
(3) Mammary glands differentiate during
pregnancy and secrete milk towards end of
(4) Secondary oocyte is a diploid cell formed as a
190. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): Copper-T is an effective
contraceptive device in females.
Reason (R): The Copper-T blocks sperm from
traveling upward from the vagina into the fallopian
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
191. Which is the correct sequence for the formation of
(1) Spermatogonia → spermatid → spermatocytes
(2) Spermatids → spermatogonia → spermatocyte
(3) Spermatids → spermatogonia → primary
spermatocytes → secondary spermatocytes
(4) Spermatogonia → primary spermatocytes →
secondary spermatocytes → spermatid →
192. Increased IMR and increased MMR in a population
(1) cause rapid increase in growth rate.
(2) result in the decline in growth rate.
(3) not cause significant change in growth rate.
(4) result in an explosive population.
193. Which of the following is incorrect about the
difficulties related to IVF techniques?
(1) It require extremely high precision handling by
(2) It requires expensive instrumentation.
(3) It is presently available in all centres of the country.
(4) Their benefits is affordable to only a limited
194. Match List-I with List-II.
B. Placenta II. Secretes relaxin hormone
III. Finger like projections on
D. Ovary IV. Facilitates supply of
Choose the correct answer from the options given
195. Which of the following method of contraception has
196. What does 'B' represent in the given below figure?
197. Which of the following contraceptive have similar
mode of action as that of pills?
198. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) The edges of the fimbrae possess very small
protoplasmic processes called infundibulum.
(2) Ovaries are the primary female sex organs that
produce the female gamete and several steroid
(3) Secretion of male accessory glands
constitute the seminal plasma.
(4) In luteal phase, Graafian follicle transform
199. Which of the following cannot be used as an
(1) Administration of progestogens within 72
(2) Administration of estrogens within 72 hours of
(3) Administration of progestogen-estrogen within
(4) Administration of IUD within 72 hours of
200. Which of the following statements about the uterus
(1) The uterine fundus is a part of the uterus.
(2) It is supported by ligaments attached to the
(3) It opens into the oviduct through the cervix,
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