10. C. FFP is the fluid portion obtained from a single unit of whole blood that is frozen
within 6 hours of collection. All coagulation factors, except platelets, are present in
FFP, which explains the use of this component in the treatment of hemorrhage. FFP is
also indicated in antithrombin III deficiency and isolated-factor deficiencies. A
transfusion of FFP carries the same risk of infection as transfusing a whole blood.
11. C. Hemolytic reactions occur when the wrong blood type is administered to a
patient. The immediate signs of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions include lumbar
and substernal pain, fever, chills, dyspnea, flushing of the skin, and hypotension. The
appearance of free hemoglobin in plasma or urine is presumptive evidence of a
hemolytic reaction. Acute renal failure reflects precipitation of stromal and lipid
contents (not free hemoglobin) of hemolyzed erythrocytes in distal renal tubules.
Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to ABO blood incompatibility,
and the most common cause is misidentification of the patient, blood specimen, or
transfusion unit (clerical error).
12. D. Blood transfusion suppresses cell-mediated immunity, which may place surgical
patients at risk for postoperative infection. The association with long-term prognosis
in cancer surgery is unclear, but there is a suggestion of a correlation between tumor
recurrence and blood transfusions. Removing most of the white blood cells from
blood and platelets (leukoreduction) reduces the incidence of nonhemolytic febrile
transfusion reactions and the transmission of leukocyte-associated viruses.
Preoperative blood transfusions appear to improve graft survival in renal transplant
13. C. One of the leading causes of transfusion-related fatalities in the United States is
bacterial contamination, which is most likely to occur in platelet concentrates.
Platelet-related sepsis can be fatal and occurs as frequently as 1 in 5,000
transfusions. Platelets are stored at 20 to 24°C instead of 4°C, which probably
accounts for the greater risk of bacterial growth than with other blood products. Any
patient in whom a fever develops within 6 hours of receiving platelet concentrates
should be considered to be possibly manifesting platelet-induced sepsis, and
empirical antibiotic therapy should be instituted.
14. D. Advantages of crystalloid solutions are that they are nontoxic, reaction-free, and
inexpensive. Colloid solutions are composed of large-molecular-weight substances
that remain in the intravascular space longer than crystalloids, and typically, the
initial volume of distribution is equivalent to the plasma volume. The synthetic
colloids and processed albumin have minimal or no risks of infection. Colloids are
more expensive than crystalloids, but have fewer risks than blood products.
15. B. Normal saline (0.9% NaCl) is slightly hypertonic and contains more chloride
than extracellular fluid. Administration of large volumes of normal saline solution
can lead to a hyperchloremic non–anion gap metabolic acidosis. Administration of
large amounts of lactated Ringer solution may result in a metabolic alkalosis because
of increased bicarbonate production from the metabolism of lactate.
16. C. Hespan is colloid containing starch and saline. All of the other options contain
potassium. Many patients with hyperkalemia, including patients with renal failure,
routinely receive normal saline because it contains no potassium.
17. B. The storage time (70% viability of transfused erythrocytes 24 hours after
transfusion) is 21 to 35 days, depending on the storage medium. Changes that occur
in blood during storage reflect the length of storage and the type of preservative
18. C. Mixing of packed red blood cells with lactated Ringer solution can cause
clotting as the citrate in the blood product can bind with calcium in the lactated
Ringer. The other options are all false. The hematocrit of 1 unit of packed red blood
cells is 70% to 80%. Transfusion of a single unit will increase an adult’s hemoglobin
concentration by about 1 g/dL. The objective in transfusion of packed red blood cells
is to increase the blood’s oxygen-carrying capacity. Although transfusion of packed
red blood cells increases intravascular fluid volume, they should not be used
routinely for this purpose given the risks associated with transfusion.
19. D. The incidence of infection from blood transfusions has markedly decreased.
Although many factors account for the marked decreased incidence of transmission
of infectious agents via blood transfusion, the most important one is improved
methods for testing of donor blood. Currently, hepatitis C, HIV, and West Nile virus
are tested by nucleic acid technology.
20. A. Both surgeons and anesthesiologists tend to underestimate blood loss.
Measurement of blood in the surgical suction container is only one component of
estimating blood loss. Blood lost in sponges, “lap” pads, and occult bleeding under
the drapes must be accounted for. The use of irrigating solutions often complicates
the assessment of blood loss. A soaked “lap” pad can hold up to 100 to 150 mL of
21. B. Febrile reactions are the most common adverse nonhemolytic reaction and occur
with 0.5% to 1% of transfusions. The most likely cause is an interaction between the
recipient’s antibodies and the antigen present on the leukocytes of platelets of the
donor. The patient’s temperature rarely increases above 38°C, and the condition is
treated by slowing the infusion and administering antipyretics. Severe febrile
reactions accompanied by chills and shivering may require discontinuation of the
22. D. A directed (or designated) blood donation is one in which a patient selects
his/her own blood donor(s) for an anticipated, nonemergency transfusion. The donor
is typically a friend or relative to the patient. Patients undergoing elective procedures
with a high probability of blood transfusion can donate their own blood 4 to 5 weeks
prior to surgery, and this is referred to as a predeposited donation. Blood salvage
refers to the collection of shed blood intraoperatively, which is then concentrated,
washed, and transfused back to the patient. For normovolemic hemodilution, blood is
removed just prior to surgery and replaced with crystalloid or colloid. The blood is
stored for up to 6 hours, and then be given back to the patient after blood loss.
23. C. Routine typing of blood is performed to identify the antigens (A, B, Rh) on the
membranes of erythrocytes. Naturally-occurring antibodies (anti-B, anti-A) are
formed whenever erythrocyte membranes lack A or B antigens (or both). These
antibodies are capable of causing rapid intravascular destruction of erythrocytes that
contain the corresponding antigens.
24. D. CPDA-1 is the most commonly added preservative added to blood products. It
contains citrate as an anticoagulant, phosphate as a buffer, dextrose as a red blood
cell energy source, and adenine needed for the maintenance of red cell ATP levels.
The potassium found in blood comes from the breakdown of red blood cells.
25. A. The citrate in the blood preservative is metabolized to bicarbonate by the liver
hypoventilation causes a respiratory acidosis.
26. D. Hypothermia, uremia, and dilution from massive transfusion are all potential
reasons for coagulopathy in this patient. A fibrinogen greater than 150 mg/dL should
27. B. According to the “4-2-1 rule,” 75 mL/h would be the maintenance rate. This is
calculated as 40 + 20 + 15 = 75 mL/h (Table 5-2).
Table 5-2 Formula for calculation of maintenance fluid requirement
28. D. Hypocalcemia as a result of citrate binding of calcium is rare because of
mobilization of calcium stores from the bone, and the ability of the liver to rapidly
metabolize citrate to bicarbonate. Therefore, arbitrary administration of calcium in
the absence of objective evidence of hypocalcemia is not indicated. Supplemental
calcium may be needed when (1) the rate of blood infusion is more rapid than 50
mL/min, (2) hypothermia or liver disease interferes with the metabolism of citrate, or
29. A. Fresher blood (<5 days of storage) has been recommended for critically ill
patients in an effort to improve the delivery of oxygen (2,3-diphosphoglycerate
concentrations are better maintained with fresher blood). More recently, some
evidence suggests that administration of younger blood (i.e., stored <14 days) is
associated with better outcomes including decreased mortality rate and fewer
postoperative complications, especially with major surgery.
30. C. In an emergency situation that requires transfusion before type and compatibility
testing can be performed, O-negative packed red blood cells may be administered.
Even if the patient’s blood type becomes known and available, after 2 units of type
O-negative packed red blood cells have been transfused, subsequent transfusions
should continue with O-negative blood. RhoGAM is not indicated since the patient’s
1. Correct statement about metabolism of drugs by the liver is
A. For drugs with low extraction ratio, liver blood flow is the rate-limiting step in
B. For drugs with high extraction ratio, the capacity of the liver to metabolize the
drug is the rate-limiting step
C. Cytochrome P450 system is highly drug-specific
D. Removal of the drug from the blood by hepatic clearance is directly
proportional to hepatic blood flow and intrinsic clearance
2. When asked to describe the symptoms of her allergy to a local anesthetic that a 26-
C. Para-aminobenzoic acid allergy
D. Epinephrine in the local anesthetic
3. All of the following drugs increase the mean arterial blood pressure, except
4. All of the following drugs increase cardiac output, except
5. In general, norepinephrine causes increase in all of the following, except
A. Mean arterial blood pressure
D. Systemic vascular resistance
7. Labetalol is relatively contraindicated for
A. Treatment of hypertension in aortic dissection
B. Treatment of hypertension in preeclampsia
C. Hypertensive emergencies after cardiac surgery involving second-degree heat
D. Hypertension secondary to clonidine withdrawal
8. The best initial treatment for anaphylaxis during general anesthesia is
9. Compared with thiopental, etomidate causes
B. Increased seizure threshold
10. Compared with propofol, ketamine causes
A. More depression of respiratory drive
B. More depression of airway reflexes
11. A 65-year-old African American patient is undergoing laparoscopic repair of
inguinal hernia under general anesthesia. He has a history of hypertension, diabetes,
and depression. His medication list includes lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide,
metformin, and phenelzine. Intraoperative hypotension develops secondary to injury
to inferior epigastric artery. Which of the following medications is relatively
contraindicated to treat this hypotension?
12. True statement regarding flumazenil is
A. It binds irreversibly with benzodiazepine receptor
B. It causes hypertension and tachycardia
C. It has a shorter duration of action than midazolam
D. It reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression
13. Midazolam can be administered through all of the following routes, except
14. When sodium bicarbonate is added to lidocaine, more rapid onset of action of
A. Increased nonionized lidocaine concentration
B. Increased ionized lidocaine concentration
15. Which of the following findings suggests current use of cocaine in a patient
undergoing preoperative evaluation?
16. Which of the following local anesthetics is an ester?
17. Which of the statements among the following is true?
A. Ropivacaine is more potent than bupivacaine
B. Ropivacaine causes more motor than sensory block
C. Bupivacaine causes more vasoconstriction than ropivacaine
D. Ropivacaine is an S-enantiomer of bupivacaine
18. A 75-year-old patient is shivering and has chest pain in the recovery room following
exploratory laparotomy for a rupture-obstructed hernia. His heart rate is 123/min,
blood pressure is 200/100 mm Hg, and SpO2
is 97% on 2 L of oxygen via nasal
cannula. An EKG shows ST-T wave changes, which are treated with nitroglycerine
with no effect. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Administration of hydralazine
B. Administration of nitroprusside
D. Application of a warming blanket
19. Which of the following statements about the local anesthetics is false?
B. They contain either ester or amide linkage
C. It is their charged form that interacts with the receptor
D. They bind the receptor inside the cell
20. Local anesthetics cause their effects by
A. Increasing the threshold potential
B. Altering the resting membrane potential
C. Increasing the rate of depolarization
D. Decreasing the rate of depolarization
21. Lipid solubility of local anesthetics
A. Generally correlates directly with the time to onset of action
B. Increases as the fraction of ionized form of the local anesthetic increases
C. Increases as the fraction of unionized form of the local anesthetic increases
D. May be different in in vivo or in vitro systems
22. Which is the correct expected duration of anesthesia after infiltration with the
A. Lidocaine 60 to 120 minutes
B. Mepivacaine 120 to 240 minutes
C. Ropivacaine 120 to 180 minutes
D. Bupivacaine 120 to 180 minutes
23. Use of which of the following local anesthetics for spinal anesthesia is
The following three questions belong to this clinical situation:
During placement of an interscalene block utilizing 0.5% bupivacaine, a 62-year-old
patient suddenly starts experiencing seizures and loses consciousness.
24. Which of the following statements regarding local anesthetic toxicity is correct?
A. Seizure is a sign of neurotoxicity from high dose of local anesthetic
B. Loss of consciousness is a sign of low-dose local anesthetic neurotoxicity
C. The seizure threshold is increased by the administration of thiopental
D. Seizure may have been caused by injection of the local anesthetic into cervical
25. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Seizure may have happened secondary to the injection of local anesthetic into
B. Loss of consciousness may be secondary to high epidural anesthesia
C. Loss of consciousness may be secondary to high spinal anesthesia
D. In general, decreased local anesthetic protein-binding decreases potential CNS
26. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Repeated attempts at aspiration would have prevented this complication
B. Addition of epinephrine to the local anesthetic may have helped to prevent this
C. Loss of consciousness means that patient has developed cardiac arrest
D. Amiodarone is the first line of treatment for cardiovascular toxicity caused by
27. During induction of anesthesia for cesarean delivery in a 22-year-old female,
rocuronium is inadvertently substituted for succinylcholine. The neonate does not
show any sign of muscle relaxation because rocuronium is
B. “Unaffected by ion trapping”
28. All of the following can lead to hyperkalemic response to the administration of
29. The dibucaine number in a patient having heterozygous type of plasma
30. Which of the following muscle relaxants is eliminated mostly by the kidneys?
31. The correct recommended intubating dose among the following muscle relaxants is
A. Vecuronium 0.08 to 0.1 mg/kg
B. Pancuronium 0.05 to 0.07 mg/kg
C. Succinylcholine 0.5 to 0.07 mg/kg
D. Cisatracurium 0.5 to 0.8 mg/kg
32. Which of the following drugs is able to cross the blood–brain barrier?
33. All of the following are side effects of anticholinesterase drugs, except
34. Which of the following characteristics of electrical stimulation is the correct
representation of the stimulus generated by the nerve stimulator used for monitoring
A. Tetany: A sustained stimulus of 50 to100 Hz, usually lasting 2 seconds
B. Twitch: A single pulse 0.5 second in duration
C. Train of four: A series of four twitches in 2 seconds (2-Hz frequency), each 0.2
D. Double-burst stimulation: Three short (0.2 ms) high-frequency stimulations
separated by a 30-ms interval and followed 1 second later by two or three
35. Which of the following antibiotics augments the action of nondepolarizing muscle
36. Immediately after induction of general anesthesia for hip replacement surgery, a 56-
year-old patient with severe mitral stenosis and a normal ejection fraction develops a
blood pressure of 70/35 mm Hg with a heart rate of 90 bpm. Which of the following
is the most appropriate initial treatment?
37. Mechanism of action of droperidol involves antagonism at all of the following
38. Which of the following is not seen in acute cyanide poisoning?
C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive effect of nitroprusside
D. Decreased mixed venous oxygen saturation
39. Which of the following medications is associated with extrapyramidal effects?
40. Which of the following medications should be discontinued before the elective
B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
41. Administration of magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia results in a decreased dose
requirement for each of the following, except
42. Benefits of epinephrine 1:200,000 added to lidocaine for an epidural injection
include all of the following, except
A. Prolongation of duration of action of lidocaine
C. Prophylactic treatment of hypotension associated with the bolus administration
D. Delayed absorption into systemic circulation, thereby decreasing probability of
43. Which of the following choices is correct regarding the blood gas partition
44. The use of neostigmine to reverse residual neuromuscular block may slow the
metabolism of which of the following drugs administered subsequently?
45. A 45-year-old patient with history of hypertrophic subaortic cardiomyopathy
becomes hypotensive. Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for treatment
46. Factors that contraindicate ketorolac administration include all of the following
C. Active peptic ulcer disease
47. After receiving massive blood transfusion, a patient anesthetized with isoflurane,
fentanyl, and nitrous oxide develops acute pulmonary edema. The drug most likely
48. A 22-year-old college athlete with a history of prolonged QT syndrome presents for
an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following agents would be least likely to
further lengthen the QT interval?
49. Which of the following statements concerning naloxone is true?
A. Elimination half-life is longer than most of the μ-receptor opioids
B. It has mixed agonist–antagonist activity
C. It relieves opioid-induced spasm of the sphincter of Oddi
D. It does not cross the placenta
50. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause tachycardia?
51. Addition of fentanyl to epidural bupivacaine will cause
A. No change in duration of analgesia
B. More rapid onset of analgesia
52. Compared with sufentanil, alfentanil is characterized by
B. Larger unionized fraction at physiologic pH
53. An inhaled anesthetic has blood/gas partition coefficient of 14.8. Recovery time
A. Oil/gas solubility of the agent
54. Nitroprusside therapy for hypertension should be discontinued in the presence of
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Increasing metabolic acidosis
55. A 24-year-old man is apprehensive of general anesthesia and prefers a regional
anesthetic. Decision is made to conduct spinal anesthesia for the repair of inguinal
hernia along with midazolam and fentanyl to allay anxiety. During the procedure, he
suddenly loses consciousness. There is profound hypotension with systolic blood
pressure of 44 mm Hg and a heart rate of 28 bpm. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is
started. The next most appropriate intervention is administration of
56. The effect of gentamycin at the neuromuscular junction is
A. Prevented by pretreatment with magnesium
B. Potentiated by anticholinesterases
C. Decreased by depolarizing relaxants
D. Partially reversed by calcium
57. Compared with lorazepam (Ativan), midazolam (Versed)
A. Has a shorter elimination half-life
C. Has a larger volume of distribution
D. Undergoes slower hepatic metabolism
58. The drug that causes dose-dependent EEG evidence of both central nervous system
59. Normal pseudocholinesterase
A. Is produced primarily at nerve terminals
B. Is antagonized by acetyl cholinesterase
C. Resists dibucaine inhibition more than atypical pseudocholinesterase
D. Metabolizes succinylcholine by Hofmann elimination
60. Succinylcholine has prolonged action in patients carrying homozygous
pseudocholinesterase. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon?
A. Diffusion away from the neuromuscular junction is slow
B. Hepatic clearance of succinylcholine is reduced
C. Succinylmonocholine induces neuromuscular block
D. An increased proportion of succinylcholine reaches the neuromuscular junction
61. Opioid analgesics cause all of the following effects except
A. Contraction of smooth muscle of the gallbladder
B. Contraction of detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder
62. Opioids may have more pronounced action in all of the following except
B. In older than in younger patients
C. During liver transplant surgery
63. Which of the following drugs decreases lower esophageal sphincter tone?
64. A 28-year-old burn patient needs daily wound debridement. Which of the following
agents is not appropriate to provide a short duration of anesthesia?
65. Eutectic mixture of local anesthetics (EMLA cream) is sometimes used to numb the
skin before attempting an intravenous access in pediatric patients. Which of the
following local anesthetics is combined with prilocaine to produce this cream?
66. A 76-year-old man with history of hypertension and cancer of the colon had
colectomy under general anesthesia 24 hours ago. He is receiving an epidural
infusion of fentanyl at the rate of 100 micro symbol g/h. Which of the following is
67. Which of the following may help in mapping of a seizure focus under general
anesthesia by enhancing the EEG activity or inducing the seizure?
68. Which of the following anesthetic agents is contraindicated for use in patients with
69. Replacing 10 mg of morphine with 30 mg of ketorolac can increase the risk of
70. The minimum anesthesia concentration (MAC) of desflurane is decreased by
C. Chronic anemia with hemoglobin of 7.5 gm/dL
71. A 45-year-old woman has been using heroin for last 20 years. Use of which of the
following drugs will cause acute withdrawal symptoms?
72. Ketamine administered in anesthetic doses
A. Decreases intracranial pressure
B. Causes respiratory depression
C. Is metabolized by the liver
D. Increases bronchomotor tone
73. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate agent for acute treatment of
hypertension in a preeclamptic patient?
74. Which of the following provides the best estimate of complete reversal of
C. Absence of fade on tetanic stimulation at 50 Hz
D. Absence of fade of single twitch
75. Which of the following is contraindicated in a patient with Guillain–Barré syndrome?
B. Nondepolarizing muscle relaxant
76. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate for management of anesthesia
in a patient who needs emergency surgery and admits to using cocaine in last 3
D. Ephedrine for treatment of hypotension
77. During general anesthesia, which of the following agents is most appropriate to treat
an acute episode of cyanosis in a child with tetralogy of Fallot?
78. Rebound hypertension is most likely after sudden discontinuation of which of the
following classes of antihypertensive drugs?
D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
79. A 65-year-old man has nausea and vomiting in the post–anesthesia care unit, needing
antiemetic therapy. He develops involuntary facial movements, difficulty
swallowing, and torticollis. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the
80. Which of the following statements about ketamine is true?
A. Tolerance may develop after repeated administration
B. It is extensively bound to plasma protein
C. Primary site of action is GABA receptor
D. Kidney is the primary route of elimination
81. Which of the following statements about etomidate is most likely true?
A. It causes significant dose-dependent respiratory depression
B. It causes cerebral vasodilatation
C. It increases frequency of excitatory spikes on the EEG more than thiopental
D. Most of the administered dose is excreted unchanged by the kidney
82. The MOST likely analgesic mechanism of action of gabapentin for neuropathic pain
A. Antagonism at the GABA receptor
83. Which of the following properties of local anesthetics is most likely a primary
84. Which of the following statements about etomidate is most likely true?
A. It is water soluble at an acidic pH and lipid soluble at physiologic pH
B. It may be used as an infusion for sedation in the ICU
C. It is related to propofol in its chemical structure
D. Awakening from induction dose is secondary to very rapid liver metabolism
85. A 64-year-old man is scheduled for an open abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.
Anesthetic plan includes placement of an epidural catheter for postoperative pain
relief. On review of his medication list, it is noted that he has been taking clopidogrel
for a coronary artery stent that was inserted 2 years ago. Which of the following
statements about clopidogrel is most likely true?
A. The American Society for Regional Anesthesia recommends that clopidogrel be
stopped 3 days before neuraxial anesthesia
B. A single dose of clopidogrel may have a clinically significant effect on platelet
C. Clopidogrel is associated with pancytopenia
D. Inhibition of platelet function by clopidogrel is reversible
86. Which of the following statements about ketamine is most likely true?
A. Analgesic efficacy of epidural ketamine is equivalent to epidural morphine
B. Ketamine decreases the duration of action of nondepolarizing neuromuscularblocking drugs
C. Ketamine is a direct myocardial depressant
D. Ketamine decreases the cortical amplitude of somatosensory-evoked potentials
87. A patient has a history of an allergic reaction to a local anesthetic but does not recall
the name. Which of the following local anesthetics will most likely be the cause of a
88. Which of the following is most likely the (analgesic) mechanism of action of
lidocaine when used for neuropathic pain?
A. Inhibition of G-protein–coupled receptors
B. Antagonism of NMDA receptors
89. A 45-year-old farmer is brought into the emergency room. He is agitated and
confused. On examination, he has dry skin with fever and rapid heart rate.
Anticholinergic poisoning is suspected. Which of the following medications is most
appropriate to treat his condition?
90. Which of the following medications will prolong the neuromuscular blockade
91. The shorter duration of action of remifentanil compared with fentanyl is primarily
92. Which of the following statements about dexmedetomidine is most likely true?
A. It has more α2 selectivity than clonidine
B. It can increase opioid-induced rigidity
C. Context-sensitive half time increases markedly after prolonged infusion of
D. It has no effect on systemic vascular resistance
93. Which of the following can precipitate an episode of myotonia in a patient with
C. Nondepolarizing neuromuscular-blocker administration
94. A 50-year-old woman had cholecystectomy done under general anesthesia.
Rocuronium was used as muscle relaxant, and a combination of anticholinergic and
anticholinesterase was used for reversal of muscle-relaxant action. The patient is
now bradycardic. The combination of reversal agents most likely to cause the
B. Glycopyrrolate and edrophonium
D. Glycopyrrolate and neostigmine
95. A 68-year-old man is undergoing exploratory laparotomy for intestinal obstruction.
Cause of obstruction is found to be an ileal carcinoid tumor. Suddenly, the patient
develops bronchospasm, and the peak airway pressure increases from 24 to 45 cm of
H2O. Which of the following is the best treatment for the bronchospasm in this
96. A 15-year-old boy has severe gastroenteritis with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for
last 3 days. A CT scan of the abdomen shows intussusceptions, which needs
exploratory laparotomy for relief of intestinal obstruction. The patient’s systolic
blood pressure is 78 mm Hg and heart rate is 112 bpm. Thiopental is selected as the
induction agent for general anesthesia. A decreased dose of this agent is
recommended in patients with hypovolemic shock primarily because
A. Delivery of the drug to the brain is increased
B. Hepatic clearance is decreased
C. Thiopental is a myocardial depressant
D. Thiopental is a vasodilator
97. A 75-year-old woman is scheduled for mitral valve repair. High-dose fentanyl is
used to induce anesthesia. In order to counteract the bradycardia caused by fentanyl,
pancuronium is administered. Pancuronium blocks the bradycardia caused by
fentanyl by acting on which of the following?
B. Cardiac muscarinic receptors
98. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to treat symptomatic
bradycardia 1 month after cardiac transplant?
99. Which of the following statements about propofol infusion syndrome is most likely
